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Q. Global Food Waste: A Critical Issue for Sustainability (Comprehension)

Passage-1
According to the Food and Agriculture Organization, one-third of food produced for human consumption is lost or wasted globally. Food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, from initial agricultural production to final household consumption. The increasing wastage also results in land degradation by about 45%, mainly due to deforestation, unsustainable agricultural practices, and excessive groundwater extraction. The energy pent over wasted food results in about 5 billion tonnes of carbon dioxide production every year. Decay also leads to harmful missions of other gases in the atmosphere. addressing the loss and wastage of food in forms is critical to complete the cycle of food efficiency and food sustainability.

Q1. Which of the following statements best reflect the most logical and rational inferences that can be made from the passage?

The current methods of food distribution are solely responsible for the loss and wastage of food.
Land productivity is adversely affected by the prevailing trend of food loss and wastage.
Reduction in the loss and wastage of food results in lesser carbon footprint.
Post-harvest technologies. to prevent or reduce the loss and wastage of food are not available.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1, 2 and 3
2 and 3 only
1, 3 and 4
1, 2 and 4

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option 1 is incorrect:The passage mentions that food is lost or wasted throughout the supply chain, not just during distribution.
Option 2 is correct:The passage states that land degradation is a result of food loss and wastage, affecting land productivity.
Option 3 is correct:The passage mentions that reducing food loss and wastage results in lesser carbon footprint, as energy spent on wasted food leads to carbon dioxide production.
Option 4 is incorrect:The passage does not mention the availability of post-harvest technologies to prevent or reduce food loss and wastage.

Q. Global Food Waste: A Critical Issue for Sustainability (Comprehension)

Q2. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made effective to reduce the loss and wastage of food.
Ensuring the reduction of wastage and loss of food is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:The passage highlights the need to address the loss and wastage of food throughout the supply chain, indicating that the food distribution mechanism needs to be reimagined and made more effective to reduce wastage.
The inefficiencies in the current food distribution system contribute to the significant amount of food that is lost or wasted globally.
Statement 2 is incorrect:While it is important for all citizens to be aware of and contribute to reducing food wastage, the passage does not explicitly state that it is a social and moral responsibility of all citizens.
The focus of the passage is on the environmental and economic impacts of food wastage, rather than solely on the social and moral responsibility of individuals.

Q. Rising Inflation and Government Spending: The Impact on Fiscal Discipline (Comprehension)

Passage-2
As inflation rises, even governments previously committed to budget discipline are spending freely to help households. Higher interest rates announced by central banks are supposed to help produce modest fiscal austerity, because to maintain stable debts while paying more to borrow, governments must cut spending or raise taxes. Without the fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction. Higher interest rates become inflationary, not disinflationary, because they simply lead governments to borrow more to pay rising debt-service costs. The risk of monetary unmooring is greater when public debt rises, because interest rates become more important to budget deficits.

Q3. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

Central banks cannot bring down inflation without budgetary backing.
The effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: The passage mentions that without fiscal backup, monetary policy eventually loses traction. This implies that central banks need budgetary backing to effectively bring down inflation.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage highlights that the effects of monetary policy depend on the fiscal policies pursued by the government. Higher interest rates announced by central banks are supposed to lead to modest fiscal austerity, which shows the interdependence of monetary and fiscal policies.

Q. Rising Inflation and Government Spending: The Impact on Fiscal Discipline (Comprehension)

Q4. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices.
Higher prices do not affect the long-term government bonds.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that fiscal policies of governments are solely responsible for higher prices. It mentions that governments are spending more to help households in the face of rising inflation, but it also discusses the role of interest rates and the impact of rising debt on budget deficits.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that higher prices do not affect long-term government bonds. It discusses the impact of higher interest rates on government borrowing costs and the importance of managing debt levels to maintain stable debts.

Q. Mensuration (Mathematics)

Q5. What is the least possible number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Minimum number of cuts = (n_x- 1) + (n_y - 1) + (n_z - 1)
For a cube with dimensions 4 x 4 x 4 (64 identical pieces), we have: n_x = 4, n_y = 4, n_z = 4
Plugging in these values: Minimum number of cuts = (4 - 1) + (4 - 1) + (4 - 1) = 3 + 3 + 3 = 9
Hence, the minimum number of cuts required to cut a cube into 64 identical pieces is 9.
So, the correct answer is (b).

Approach 2

The cube needs to be cut into 64 identical pieces.
This is equivalent to dividing the cube into 4×4×4 = 64 smaller cubes.
To achieve this, imagine dividing the cube into 4 equal parts along each axis (x, y, z), resulting in 4×4×4 = 64 smaller cubes.
Each cut along an axis creates 3 pieces (2 cuts = 3 pieces, 3 cuts = 4 pieces, and so on).
Since we need 4 pieces along each axis, we need 3 cuts along each axis.
Therefore, the total number of cuts required is 3×3×3=27 to achieve 64 identical pieces.
However, the question asks for the least possible number of cuts, so we must evenly distribute these cuts on the axes.
Distributing 27 cuts evenly on x and z axes gives us 9 cuts each on these axes, totaling 18 cuts.
The remaining 9 cuts are distributed along the y-axis.
Thus, the correct answer is 9 cuts (option b).

Q. Fundamental Arithmetical Operation (Mathematics)

Q6. In the expression 5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1, * is chosen from +, -, x each at most two times. What is the smallest non - negative value of the expression?

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's analyze the expression 5 * 4* 3* 2* 1.
We need to solve it using hit and trial method.
If we use the * symbol as subtraction (-) twice, then addition (+) and multiplication (x),
The expression = 5 - 4 - 3 + 2 x 1 = 5 – 7 + 2 = 0.
Since we want the smallest non-negative value, the correct option is (d) 0.

Q. Time and Work (Mathematics)

Q7. A certain number of men can complete a piece of work in 6k days, where k is a natural number. By what percent should the number of men be increased so that the work can be completed in 5k days?

10%
(50/3)%
20%
25%

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given:

The number of men required to complete the work in 6k days is M.
The number of days required to complete the work is reduced to 5k days. We need to find the percentage increase in the number of men required.
Let's denote the initial number of men as M and the increased number of men as N.

Approach

The formula for work and time is “Work = Rate × Time”.
Hence, the work done by the men is inversely proportional to the number of days.

The work done is the same in both cases. So, the relationship between men and days can be written as:

M × 6k = N × 5k
M / N = 6/5
This ratio tells us that to finish the work in 5k days, the number of men should be increased by 1/5, which is 20%.
So, the correct answer is (c) 20%

Q. Time and Work (Mathematics)

Q8. X, Y and Z can complete a piece of work individually in 6 hours, 8 hours and 8 hours respectively. However, only one person at a time can work in each hour and nobody can work for two consecutive hours. All are engaged to finish the work. What is the minimum amount of time that they will take to finish the work?

6 hours 15 minutes
6 hours 30 minutes
6 hours 45 minutes
7 hours

Answer: C

Explanation:

Approach

Find the LCM of 6, 8 and 8, which is 24.
X takes 6 hours to complete the work, so in 1 hour he completes 4 units of work (24 units / 6 hours).
Since Y and Z take 8 hours each to complete the work, in 1 hour they will complete 3 units of work (24 units / 8 hours).
Given, only one person at a time can work in each hour. Nobody can work for two consecutive hours.
To get the the minimum amount of time, we need to utilize X the most because he is most efficient. Hence, every alternative hour, we will utilize X for work.

Now, let's plan their work:

In the first hour, X starts and completes 4 units of work.
In the second hour, Y or Z starts and completes 3 units of work.
In the third hour, X starts again and completes 4 units of work.
In the fourth hour, Y or Z starts and completes 3 units of work.
… And so on.

We need total 24 unit work.

By the above pattern, in 6 hours they will complete 4 + 3 + 4 + 3 + 4 + 3 = 21 units of work.
They have 3 more units of work to complete. X will finish the remaining 3 units of work in 3/4 hours, i.e. 45 minutes.
So, the total time taken is 6 hours + 45 minutes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (c).

Q. Number System (Mathematics)

Q9. How many consecutive zeros are there at the end of the integer obtained in the product 1² x 2⁴ x 3⁶ x 4⁸ x ... x 25⁵⁰?

Answer: D

Explanation:

We need to find the number of consecutive zeros at the end of the integer obtained by multiplying certain numbers together.
Zeros occur when a factor of 5 pairs with a factor of 2. Hence, to find the number of zeros at the end of the product, we need to focus on the factors of 5 and 2 in each term of the product.
Since, in this progression, factors of 2 are more common than factors of 5, we should count the number of factors of 5.
In the given sequence, we observe that the power of 5 increases every fifth term:
5¹⁰ x 10²⁰ x 15³⁰ x 20⁴⁰ x 25⁵⁰.
Factoring it: 10 = 5 *2, 20 = 5*2*2, 25 = 5*5.
Total 5s in the sequence: 5¹⁰x 5²⁰x 15³⁰x 5⁴⁰x 5¹⁰⁰.
Hence, the sum of these powers is 200.

Q. Number Series (Reasoning)

Q10. On January 1st, 2023, a person saved ₹1. On January 2nd, 2023, he saved ₹ 2 more than that on the previous day. On January 3rd, 2023, he saved ₹ 2 more than that on the previous day and so on. At the end of which date was his total savings a perfect square as well a perfect cube?

7th January, 2023
8th January, 2023
9th January, 2023
Not possible

Answer: B

Explanation:

Fact to learn:

The possible numbers that are both perfect squares and perfect cubes till 1000 are 1 (12 and 13), 64 (82 and 43), and 729 (272 and 93).

Given:

The person starts saving ₹1 on January 1st, then saves ₹2 more than the previous day's savings on each subsequent day.
The savings form an arithmetic progression with a common difference of 2: 1, 3, 5, 7, 9, ...

Calculations

January 1: ₹1 (It is a perfect square or cube)
Option a: January 7: 1 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 9 + 11 + 13 = 49 (a perfect square, but not a perfect cube). Hence, option a is wrong
Option b: January 8: 49 + 15 = 64 (a perfect square and a perfect cube). Hence, option b is correct.
Option c: January 9: 64 + 17 = 81 (a perfect square, but not a perfect cube). Hence, option c is wrong.
The correct answer is: (b)

Q.The Systems Approach to Urban Planning (Comprehension)

Passage-1
Today, if we consider cities such as New York, London and Paris as some of the most iconic cities in the world, it is because plans carrying a heavy systems approach were imposed on their precincts. The backbone of the systems theory is the process of translating social, spatial and cultural desirables into mathematical models using computing, statistics, optimization and an algorithmic way of formulating and solving problems. The early universities of the West which began to train professionals in planning, spawned some of the most ingenious planners, who were experts in these domains. This was because these very subjects were absorbed into the planning curriculum that had its roots in the social sciences, geography and architecture. Planning in India, and its education differ from the West.

Q11. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

Curriculum for urban planning courses should have diverse and interdisciplinary approach.
In India, city administration is under bureaucracy which lacks formal training in urban planning and management.
In India, the management of urban areas is a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds.
With high density of population and widespread poverty in our urban areas, planned development in them is very difficult.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option A is correct: The passage mentions that the early universities in the West trained professionals in planning with a curriculum that included social sciences, geography, and architecture. This indicates that a diverse and interdisciplinary approach is important in urban planning courses.
Option B is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about city administration in India being under bureaucracy lacking formal training in urban planning and management.
Option C is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about the management of urban areas in India being a local affair with a chronic problem of insufficient funds.
Option D is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about the high density of population and widespread poverty in Indian urban areas affecting planned development.

Q. The Systems Approach to Urban Planning (Comprehension)

Q12. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

India needs a new generation of urban professionals knowledge relevant to urban practice. with modern
Indian universities at present have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:India does need a new generation of urban professionals with modern knowledge relevant to urban practice, as mentioned in the passage.
The passage highlights the importance of training professionals in planning with expertise in social, spatial, and cultural domains, which is essential for effective urban practice.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The passage does not mention that Indian universities have no capacity or potential to impart training in systems approach.
It only states that planning education in India differs from the West, but it does not imply a lack of capacity or potential in Indian universities.

Q. Unequal Voices: The Impact of Capital on Online Discourse (Comprehension)

Passage-2
Not every voice on the internet commands the same kind of audience. When anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, they are effectively buying a louder voice. If political discourse in the digital sphere is a matter of outshining one's opponent till the election is won, then the quality of politics suffers. The focus of social media is restricted to the promotion of content that generates more user engagement, regardless of how inflammatory the content may be.

Q13. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?

Constructed as a marketplace of views, social media ensures instant access to information.
Social media are not ideal or moral institutions but the products built by companies to make profits.
Social media have been created to strengthen democracies.
In today's world, social media are inevitable for well-informed social life.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option a is incorrect: The passage does not focus on the instant access to information provided by social media but rather on the unequal distribution of voices and the impact of paid content on political discourse.
Option b is correct: The passage highlights how social media platforms prioritize profit-making and allow those with high capital to have a louder voice, impacting the quality of political discourse.
Option c is incorrect: The passage does not mention that social media have been created to strengthen democracies, but rather focuses on the negative impact of paid content and user engagement on political discourse.
Option d is incorrect: While social media may be inevitable in today's world, the passage does not focus on their importance for well-informed social life but rather on their negative impact on political discourse.

Q.Unequal Voices: The Impact of Capital on Online Discourse (Comprehension)

Q14. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Internet is not inclusive enough.
Internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:The passage mentions that anonymous private entities with high capital can pay for more space for their opinions, effectively buying a louder voice. This implies that not everyone has equal access to the internet to voice their opinions, making it not inclusive enough.
Statement 2 is correct:The passage highlights that if political discourse in the digital sphere is focused on outshining opponents with inflammatory content to win elections, the quality of politics suffers. This shows that the internet can adversely affect the quality of politics in a country.

Q. Divisibility Rules (Mathematics)

Q15. 222³³³ +333²²² is divisible by which of the following numbers?

2 and 3 but not 37
3 and 37 but not 2
2 and 37 but not 3
2, 3 and 37

Answer: B

Explanation:

Points to Remember:

The power of an even numbers is always even.
The power of an odd numbers is always odd.
The sum of an odd number and an even number is always odd.

Solution

222 is an even number. Its any power is always even. Means 222³³³ is even.
333 is an odd number. The power of an odd numbers is always odd. 333²²² is odd.
222³³³+333²²² is odd. Hence, it is not divisible by 2.
By elimination, we’ll reach at option b as the correct answer.

Note:

This question is solved by the concept of Modulo. This is not expected to be studied for CSAT paper.

Q. Mixtures and Allegations (Mathematics)

Q16. What percent of water must be mixed with honey so as to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey?

Answer: A

Explanation:

Given

We want to mix water with honey to gain 20% by selling the mixture at the cost price of honey.
Let's assume the cost price of 1 unit of honey is 100 (to make calculations simpler).
If we mix water with honey, and the selling price remains the same as the cost price of honey, the new cost price will be 120 (100 + 20% of 100).

Now, let's calculate the ratio of honey to water in the new mixture:

Honey: 100 (original cost price) * 1 unit
Water: 20 (20% of 100) * 1 unit
So, the ratio of water to honey is 20:100, which simplifies to 1:5.
This means we need to add 1 part of water for every 5 parts of honey. So, 1/5 or 20% of water must be added.
Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 20%.

Q. Number System: Unit Digit (Mathematics)

Q17. What is the rightmost digit preceding the zeros in the value of 3030?

Answer: D

Explanation:

30³⁰ 3= 10³⁰ * 3³⁰
Any power to 10 will have zeros in the end. Hence, the question basically simplifies to “What is the unit digit in the value of 330?”
Repetition Cyclicity:
The cyclicity of the unit digit 3 is 4, resulting in the unit digit of the number being 3, 9, 7 and 1.
The pattern repeats every 4 powers.
31 = 3
32 = 9
33 = 27 (unit digit 7)
34 = 81 (unit digit 1)
.
.
And so on.
--------------------
Now, 30 = 28 + 2. Hence, the answer will be 9.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

Q. Divisibility Rules and Remainder Theorem (Mathematics)

Q18. 421 and 427, when divided by the same number, leave the same remainder 1. How many numbers can be used as the divisor in order to get the same remainder 1?

Answer: C

Explanation:

To find the numbers that can be used as the divisor to get the same remainder of 1 when dividing 421 and 427, we can follow following steps:

Subtract the remainder ( i.e. 1) from both numbers: 421 - 1 = 420 and 427 - 1 = 426.
Prime factorize both numbers: 420 = 2^2 * 3 * 5 * 7 and 426 = 2 * 3 * 71.

Now, look for common factors in their prime factorizations:

Both have 2 as a factor.
Both have 3 as a factor.
Both have no other common factors besides 1.

So, the common divisors that would give the same remainder of 1 when dividing 421 and 427 are the factors of 6, which are 1, 2, 3, and 6.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (c) 3

Q. LCM/ HCF (Mathematics)

Q19. A can X contains 399 litres of petrol and a can Y contains 532 litres of diesel. They are to be bottled in bottles of equal size so that whole of petrol and diesel would be separately bottled. The bottle capacity in terms of litres is an integer. How many different bottle sizes are possible?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Prime factorization

Prime factorization of 399: 399 = 3¹×7¹×19¹
Prime factorization of 532: 532 = 2²×7¹×19¹

Common factors:

3 (from 399)
7 (from both 399 and 532)
19 (from both 399 and 532)
1 (considered as a factor)

So, the common factors are 3, 7, 19, and 1, which are 4 different bottle sizes.

Therefore, the correct answer is: (b) 4.

Approach 2:

To find the different bottle sizes possible, we need to determine the common factors of 399 and 532 because each bottle size must evenly divide the amount of petrol or diesel in their respective cans.
Let's find the factors of 399 and 532:
- Factors of 399: 1, 3, 7, 19, 21, 57, 133, 399
- Factors of 532: 1, 2, 4, 7, 14, 19, 28, 38, 76, 133, 266, 532
The common factors of 399 and 532 are 1, 7, 19 and 133. These represent the possible bottle sizes in terms of litres that can evenly divide the amounts of petrol and diesel in the cans.
So, there are 4 different bottle sizes possible. The correct answer is (b).

Q. Basic Arithmetical Operations (Mathematics)

Q20. Consider the following statements in respect of the sum S = x + y + z, where x, y and z are distinct prime numbers each less than 10:

The unit digit of S can be 0.
The unit digit of S can be 9.
The unit digit of S can be 5.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

x, y and z are distinct prime numbers each less than 10. Means these are 2, 3, 5 and 7.

Statement 1: The unit digit of S can be 0.

We can choose 2, 3, and 5. Their sum is 10, which ends in 0.
So, this statement is correct.

Statement 2: The unit digit of S can be 9.

We can sum any combination out of 2, 3, 5 and 7.
2 + 3 + 5 or 2 + 3 + 7 or 2 + 5 + 7 or 3 + 5 + 7 (Total 4 combinations are possible; 4C3). None of them has unit digit as 9.
Therefore, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 3: The unit digit of S can be 5.

We can choose 3, 5, and 7. Their sum is 15, which ends in 5.
So, this statement is correct.

Q. Challenges Faced by Class 8 Students in Education System (Comprehension)

Passage-1
By the time children reach class 8, the bulk of them tend to be in the age range of 13 years to 15 years. But in our country, about a quarter of all children in class 8 struggle with reading simple texts and more than half are still unable to do basic arithmetic operations like division. Every year about 25 million young boys and girls from elementary school move into the life that lies for them beyond compulsory schooling. They cannot enter the workforce at least in he organized sector till they are 18. For many families, these children are the first from their families ever to get this far in school. Parents and children expect that such 'graduates' from school will go on to high school and college. Hardly anyone wants to go back to agriculture. On the other hand, abilities in terms of academic competencies are far lower than they should be even based on curricular expectations of class 8.

Q21. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:
For effective school education, parents have greater role than the governments.
School curriculum that conforms to today's requirements and is uniform for the entire country may address the issues brought out.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:The passage does not mention the role of parents in effective school education. It focuses more on the academic abilities of children in class 8 and their transition to higher education.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The passage does not suggest that a uniform school curriculum for the entire country would address the issues of low academic competencies among children in class 8. It highlights the gap between curricular expectations and actual academic abilities.

Q. Challenges Faced by Class 8 Students in Education System (Comprehension)

Q22. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea conveyed by the passage?

Total eradication of poverty in the country will resolve the issue of under-performance of our school- children.
Monetary incentives to parents and teachers is a strategy to improve the children's academic performance.
Public policy should ensure that competencies and achievements of young people are aligned with their expectations.
India is not going to take advantage of the demographic dividend unless some school pass-outs go back to agriculture.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option a is incorrect: The passage does not mention poverty as the central issue affecting the academic performance of school children.
Option b is incorrect: The passage does not discuss monetary incentives as a strategy to improve academic performance.
Option c is correct: The passage emphasizes the importance of aligning the competencies and achievements of young people with their expectations through public policy.
Option d is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that school pass-outs should go back to agriculture in order to take advantage of the demographic dividend.

Q. Science's Evolving Social Responsibility (Comprehension)

Passage-2
We take it for granted now that science has a social responsibility. The idea would not have occurred to Newton or Galileo. They thought of science as an account of the world as it is, and the only responsibility that they acknowledged was to tell the truth. The idea that science is a social enterprise is modern, and it begins at the industrial revolution. We are surprised that we cannot trace a social sense further back, because we nurse the illusion that the industrial revolution ended golden age.

Q23. Which one of the following statements best reflects the thinking of the author about the science?

Science must value the commitment of the scientists.
Science is a product of civilized society and must be used for the promotion of scientific awareness in people.
Industrial revolution was made possible by the advancements in science.
Science must pursue truth but be responsible for social welfare.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option a is incorrect: The author does not mention anything about valuing the commitment of scientists in relation to science having a social responsibility.
Option b is incorrect: While the author does mention that science is a social enterprise, there is no mention of it being a product of civilized society or needing to promote scientific awareness in people.
Option c is incorrect: The author does not directly state that the industrial revolution was made possible by advancements in science, but rather that the idea of science having a social responsibility began around that time.
Option d is correct: The author explicitly states that Newton and Galileo thought of science as telling the truth, but modern science has a social responsibility to pursue truth while also being responsible for social welfare.

Q. Letter Series (Reasoning)

Q24. Consider the sequence A_BCD_BBCDABC_DABC_D that follows a certain pattern. Which one of the following completes the sequence?

B, A, D, C
B, A, C, D
A, A, C, D
A, A, D, C

Answer: C

Explanation:

The sequence provided is A_BCD_BBCDABC_DABC_D.

Step 1: Counting Elements:

The sequence has 20 elements, including spaces, which are counted as separate elements.
There are high chances that it will be sequenced as a group of 4 or a group of 5.

Step 2: Checking in a group of 4 elements, including spaces

A_BC
D_BB
CDAB
C_DA
BC_D
There are five such groups. We do not observe any sequence.

Step 3: Checking in a group of 5 elements, including spaces

A_BCD
_BBCD
ABC_D
ABC_D
Here, we find D in the last of every group. It means that we are on a good path.

Identifying Patterns: The pattern noticed is that in each group of five elements, the second element is doubled:

First group: A, A, B, C, D (Double A)
Second group: A, B, B, C, D (Double B)
Second group: A, B, B, C, D (Double B)
Third group: A, B, C, C, D (Double C)
Fourth group: A, B, C, D, D (Double D)

According to the pattern observed, option (c) A, A, C, D is the correct answer.

Q. Ratio (Mathematics)

Q25. Two persons P and Q enter into a business. P puts ₹14,000 more than Q, but P has invested for 8 months and Q has invested for 10 months. If P's share is ₹400 more than Q's share out of the total profit of ₹2,000, what is the capital contributed by P?

₹30,000
₹26,000
₹24,000
₹20,000

Answer: A

Explanation:

Let the amount invested by Q be x rupees. Then, the amount invested by P = (x + 14,000).

Given: P invested for 8 months, and Q invested for 10 months.
Hence, ratio of amount invested of P/Q = ((x + 14,000) * 8) / 10 x

Now, given that in total profit of ₹ 2000, P's share is ₹400 more than Q's share:

It means, Profit of P = ₹1200, and Profit of Q = ₹ 800.
Ratio of profits of P/Q = 1200 / 800 = 1.5

Now comparing: Profit shares are in proportion to the total amount invested.

Hence,

((x + 14,000) * 8) / 10 x = 1.5
8 x + 14,000 * 8 = 1.5 * 10 x = 15 x
14,000 * 8 = 7 x
x = 16,000

hence, the capital contributed by P = (x + 14,000) = ₹ 30,000.
Hence, option 1 is correct.

Q. Percentage (Mathematics)

Q26. P’s salary is 20% lower than Q’s salary which is 20% lower than R’s salary. By bow much percent is R’s salary more than P’s salary?

48.75%
56.25%
60.50%
62.25%

Answer: B

Explanation:

Let's assume R's salary is 100 units.
Q's salary is 20% lower than R's, which is 100- (20% × 100) = 100-20 = 80 units.
P's salary is 20% lower than Q's, which is 80- (20% × 80) = 80-16 = 64 units.
Now, we need to find out by what percent R's salary is more than P's salary:
- Percent Increase = (Increase in Salary /Original Salary of P ) × 100
- Increase in Salary = R's Salary - P's Salary = 100-64 =36
- Percent Increase = (36/64) × 100 = 56.25%
So, the correct answer is (b) 56.25%.

Q. Percentage (Mathematics)

Q27. A number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4. What is the percentage change in the result due to this mistake?

25%
50%
93.75%
72.75%

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's assume the original number is x.
When the number is mistakenly divided by 4 instead of multiplying by 4, the result becomes x/4,
The correct result should have been 4x.
Now, let's find the percentage change in the result due to this mistake using the formula for percentage change:
- Percentage Change = (Change/ Original Value) * 100
- Here, the change is 4x – (x/4) = 15x/4 , and the original value is 4x.
- Plugging in the values, we get:
- Percentage Change = ((15x/4) / 4x) * 100
- Now, simplify and solve for x:
- Percentage Change = 15/16 × 100 = 93.75%
So, the correct answer is (d) 93.75%.

Q. Set Theory and Venn Diagram (Mathematics)

Q28. In an examination, 80% of students passed in English, 70% of students passed in Hindi and 15% failed in both the subjects. What is the percentage of students who failed in only one subject?

Answer: B

Explanation:

15% Students failed in both subjects.
means, 85% passed (at least in one subject, or in both)

(A∪B) = 85
n(A∩B) = A + B - (A∪B)
= 80 + 70 - 85
= 65

Means,

Students passed only in English = 80 - 65 = 15
Students passed only in Hindi = 70 - 65 = 5
Means, Students who failed only in one subject = 20

Q. (Subject)

Q29. A father said to his son, "n years back I was as old as you are now. My present age is four times your age n years back". If the sum of the present ages of the father and the son is 130 years, what is the difference of their ages?

30 years
32 years
34 years
36 years

Answer: A

Explanation:

Now that we have found the age of the father, which is 80 years, we can substitute this value back into the equation to find the age of the son.

Suppose present ages of Father = F, and Son = S

Means, F + S = 130
Or S = 130 – F
n years back, Father’s age: F – n, and Son’s age: 130 – F – n

Given, father said to his son, “n years back I was as old as you are now.”

Means, F – n = S
Or F – n = 130 – F
2F = 130 + n
Or n = 2F – 130 …… (i)

Given, father said to his son, "My present age is four times your age n years back".

Means F = 4 (130 – F – n)
Substituting n from equation 1: F = 4 (130 – F – 2F + 130)
Or, F = 4 (260 – 3F)
Or, 13F = 4 * 260
Or F = 80 years
Hence, Son's age = S = 130 – F = 50 years

Difference in ages:

= 80 – 50 = 30 years

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 30 years.

Q. (Subject)

Q30. Consider the following:

1. 1000 litres = 1 m³
2. 1 metric ton = 1000 kg
3. 1 hectare = 10000 m²

Which of the above are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

1000 litres = 1 m³ - This statement is correct, as 1 cubic meter (m³) is equal to 1000 liters.
1 metric ton = 1000 kg - This statement is also correct, as 1 metric ton is equivalent to 1000 kilograms.
1 hectare = 10000 m² - This statement is correct, as 1 hectare is equal to 10,000 square meters.
Therefore, the correct answer is (d) 1, 2 and 3, as all three statements are correct.

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following two passages and answer passages. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Q. The Real History of Mankind: Science and Society (Comprehension)

Passage-1
The history of science is the real history of mankind." In this striking epigram, a nineteenth-century writer links science with its background. Like most epigrams, its power lies in emphasizing by contrast an aspect of truth which may be easily overlooked. In this case, it is easy to overlook the relations between science and mankind, and to treat the former as some abstract third party, which can sometimes be praised for its beneficial influences, but frequently and conveniently blamed for the horrors of war. Science and mankind cannot be divorced from time to time at men's convenience. Yet we have seen that, in spite of countless opportunities of improvement, the opening years of the present period of civilization have been dominated by international conflict. Is this the inevitable result of the progress of science or does the fault lie elsewhere?

Q31. Which the of following is/are emphatically conveyed by the author of the passage?

Without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today.
It is the science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly state that without science, mankind could not have continued to exist till today. The passage emphasizes the importance of the relationship between science and mankind, but does not make a direct statement about the necessity of science for mankind's existence.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that it is science that will ultimately determine the destiny of mankind. The passage focuses on the relationship between science and mankind, and questions whether the progress of science is to blame for international conflict, rather than making a statement about science determining mankind's destiny.

Q. The Real History of Mankind: Science and Society (Comprehension)

Q32. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science.
The aspect of truth likely to be overlooked is that science is what man has made it.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are correct?

1 only.
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly state that the horrors of modern life are the inevitable result of the progress of science. It raises the question of whether the fault lies with science or elsewhere.
Statement 2 is correct: The passage emphasizes the importance of recognizing that science is a product of mankind and cannot be divorced from human history and actions.

Q. The Merchant's Journey to Understanding (Comprehension)

Passage-2
Only with long experience and opening of his wares on many a beach where his language is not spoken, will the merchant come to know the worth of what he carries, and what is parochial and what is universal in his choice. Such delicate goods as justice, love and honour, courtesy, and indeed all the things we care for, are valid everywhere but they are variously moulded and often differently handled, and sometimes nearly unrecognizable if you meet them in a foreign land, and the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel to those who wish to live at ease among their fellows.

Q33. When we meet other people while we travel, we learn to differentiate between

imagination and understanding
communities and nationalities
local values and universal values
friends and foes

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: The passage does not specifically mention the differentiation between imagination and understanding in the context of meeting other people while traveling.
Option B is incorrect: While the passage does touch on the idea of different communities and nationalities, the main focus is on the distinction between local and universal values.
Option C is correct: The passage discusses the importance of understanding the difference between local values and universal values when traveling and interacting with people from different cultures.
Option D is incorrect: The passage does not address the differentiation between friends and foes specifically in the context of meeting other people while traveling.

Q. The Merchant's Journey to Understanding (Comprehension)

Q34. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Travel leads to an understanding of humans.
Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values.
A person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people.

Which of the assumptions given above are valid?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct: Travel leads to an understanding of humans as the passage mentions that through travel, a merchant can come to know the worth of what he carries and understand the differences in how values are handled in different cultures.
Statement 2 is correct: Travel helps those who wish to learn fundamental common values as the passage states that the art of learning fundamental common values is perhaps the greatest gain of travel for those who wish to live at ease among their fellows.
Statement 3 is incorrect: The passage does not explicitly mention that a person with long experience in travel can resolve differences amongst people. It focuses more on the understanding and appreciation of different values and cultures through travel.

Q. Number System (Mathematics)

Q35. Let X be a two-digit number and Y be another two-digit number formed by interchanging the digits of X. If (X + Y) is the greatest two-digit number, then what is the number of possible values of X?

Answer: D

Explanation:

Relationship between X and Y:

X is a two-digit number. Y is formed by interchanging the digits of X.
X = 10a + b, (where a is the tens digit and b is the units digit), then Y = 10b + a.

Calculating X + Y:

X + Y = (10a + b) + (10b + a)
X + Y = 11a + 11b
X + Y = 11(a + b)

Now, since (X + Y) is the greatest two-digit number, it must be 99.

So, we have: 11(a + b) = 99
Means, a + b = 9

Now, we need to find the possible values of a and b that satisfy this equation while keeping them within the two-digit range (0 to 9).

The possible combinations for a and b are: (1, 8), (2, 7), (3, 6), (4, 5), (5, 4), (6, 3), (7, 2), (8, 1)
So, the number of possible values of X is 8.
Therefore, the correct answer is: (d)

Q. Average (Mathematics)

Q36. Consider the following:
Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 7 girls = Weight of 3 men = Weight of 4 women If the average weight of the women is 63 kg, then what is the average weight of the boys?

(a) 40 kg
(b) 42 kg
(c) 45 kg
(d) 63 kg

Answer: B

Explanation:

Total Weight of 4 women = average weight of the women * total no of women = 63 * 4 = 252.
Weight of 6 boys = Weight of 4 women.
Total weight of 6 boys = 252.
Hence, average weight of the boys = 262/ 6 = 42 kg.
Hence, answer is b.

Q. (Subject)

Q37. How many times the hour hand and the minute hand coincide in a clock between 10:00 a.m. and 2:00 p.m. (same day)?

3 times
4 times
5 times
6 times

Answer: A

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. (Subject)

Q38. The calendar for the year 2025 is same for

2029
2030
2031
2033

Answer: C

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. Basic Arithmetical Operations (Mathematics)

Q39. Let p, q, r and s be distinct positive integers. Let p, q be odd and r, s be even. Consider the following statements:

1. (p - r)2 (qs) is even.
2. (q-s)q2s is even.
3. (q + r)2 (p + s) is odd.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1 and 2 only
2 and 3 only
1 and 3 only
1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Explanation:

Points to Remember:

The multiplication of an even numbers to any even or odd number is always even. (Note: Zero is an even number.)
The multiplication of an odd numbers to odd number is always odd.
The square of an odd numbers is always odd.
The sum or difference of even numbers is always even.
The sum or difference of an odd number and an even number is always odd.

Given:

P and q are odd. R and s are even.

Statement 1: (p - r)² (qs) is even.

s is even. Hence, its multiplication to any number will always be even.

Statement 2: (q-s) q²s is even.

s is even. Hence, its multiplication to any number will always be even.

Statement 3: (q + r)² (p + s) is odd.

(q+r) = odd + even = odd. The square of an odd number is odd.
(p+s) = odd + even = odd.
odd × odd = odd.

Hence, option d is correct.

Q. (Subject)

Q40. What is the angle between the minute hand and hour hand when the clock shows 4:25 hours?

12.5°
15°
17.5°
20°

Answer: C

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. Breaking the Tyranny of Conventional Classrooms (Comprehension)

Passage-1
Conventional classrooms, by emphasizing fixed duration over learning effectiveness, resign themselves to variable outcomes. The tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration. In the end, a few learners shine, some survive, and the rest are left behind. After the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on, with not a thought spared for those left behind. This is how we end up with 10 percent employability in our graduates after a decade and half of formal education. Repeating the same ineffectual script in the realm of skill education will not produce different results.

Q41. Which of the following statements best reflects/reflect the most logical and rational inference/inferences that can be made from the passage?

In conventional classroom learning, the central goal is duration of learning rather than attainment of competency.
Conventional classrooms encourage one-size-fits-all approach stamp out all differentiation.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:Conventional classrooms do emphasize fixed duration over learning effectiveness, as mentioned in the passage.
The passage also states that learners are subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration, indicating a focus on duration rather than competency.
Statement 2 is correct:The passage mentions that the tyranny of the classroom is that every learner is subjected to the same set of lectures in the same way for the same duration, indicating a one-size-fits-all approach.
It also states that after the fixed duration, the classroom model moves on without considering those left behind, further supporting the idea of stamping out differentiation.

Q. Breaking the Tyranny of Conventional Classrooms (Comprehension)

Q42. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

As a large number of workers in our country are employed in unorganized sector, India does not need to change its present conventional classroom system of education.
Even with its present conventional classroom system of education, India produces sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect:The passage does not mention anything about the number of workers in the unorganized sector or how it relates to the need for changing the conventional classroom system of education.
The passage actually criticizes the conventional classroom system of education for its fixed duration and lack of effectiveness in producing skilled workers.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The passage highlights the shortcomings of the conventional classroom system of education in producing skilled workers with only 10 percent employability.
It suggests that repeating the same ineffective script in skill education will not lead to different results, indicating that the current system is not producing a sufficient number of skilled workers to fully realize the benefits of demographic dividend.

Q. Parental Conflict During Adolescence (Comprehension)

Passage-2
When a child reaches adolescence, there is apt to be a conflict between the parents and the child, since the latter considers himself to be by now quite capable of managing his own affairs, while the former are filled with parental solicitude, which is often a disguise for love of power. Parents consider, usually, that the various moral problems which arise in adolescence are peculiarly their province. The options they express, however, are so dogmatic that the young seldom confide in them, and usually go their own way in secret.

Q43. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The adolescent does not feel comfortable with his parents because they tend to be dominating and assertive.
The adolescent of modern times does not have much respect for parents.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:The passage mentions that there is a conflict between parents and adolescents due to the parents' parental solicitude, which can be seen as dominating and assertive behavior.
The adolescent considers themselves capable of managing their own affairs, which can lead to discomfort with the parents' controlling behavior.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The passage does not mention that adolescents do not have respect for their parents. It focuses more on the conflict arising from the parents' behavior rather than lack of respect from the adolescent.

Q. Parental Conflict During Adolescence (Comprehension)

Q44. Which one of the following statements best reflects the central idea of the above passage?

Parents in general may not be of much help when children are on their way to becoming adults.
When children reach adolescence, involvement of parents in their lives is unnecessary.
Modern-day nuclear families are not capable of bringing up children properly.
In modern societies, adolescents tend to be stubborn, disobedient and careless.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option A is correct: The passage discusses the conflict between parents and adolescents during the teenage years, highlighting that parents may not be of much help as the young individuals consider themselves capable of managing their own affairs.
Option B is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that parental involvement is unnecessary, but rather that there is a conflict between parents and adolescents during this stage of life.
Option C is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about the capability of nuclear families in bringing up children properly.
Option D is incorrect: The passage does not generalize adolescents as being stubborn, disobedient, and careless in modern societies. It focuses more on the conflict between parents and adolescents during this stage of life.

Q. (Subject)

Q45. What is the number of fives used in numbering a 260-page book?

Answer: B

Explanation:

In a 260-page book, the number of times the digit 5 appears in the numbering can be calculated as follows:

5 will occur at three places: Unit Place, Ten’s Place, Hundred’s Place.

Digit 5 in the unit's place:

From 1 to 100: 5, 15, 25, …..85, 95: digit 5 appears 10 times.
From 101 to 200: 105, 115, 125, …..185, 195: digit 5 appears 10 times.
From 201 to 260: 205, 215, 225, 235, 245, 255: digit 5 appears 6 times.

Digit 5 in the 10th place:

From 1 to 100: 50, 51, 52, 53, 54, 55, 56, 57, 58, 59: the digit 5 appears 10 times.
From 101 to 200: 150, 151, 152, …159: the digit 5 appears 10 times.
From 201 to 260: 250, 251, 252, …259: the digit 5 appears 10 times.

Adding all these:

The total number of times the digit 5 appears in the numbering of a 260-page book = 10 + 10 + 6 + 10 + 10 + 10 = 56 times.
Therefore, the correct answer is (b) 56.

Q. (Subject)

Q46. What is the sum of the first 28 terms in the following sequence?

1,1,2,1,3,2,1,4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 2,...

Answer: B

Explanation:

We can analyze the pattern of the sequence. The sequence is as follows:

1, 1, 2, 1, 3, 2, 1, 4, 3, 2, 1, 5, 4, 3, 2...

We can see that the numbers form a pattern. The pattern is as follows:

1,
1,2,
1,3,2,
1,4, 3, 2,
1,5, 4, 3, 2
Next pattern sequence should be 1, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2,
Next pattern sequence should be 1, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2,

We can determine the sum of the first 28 terms.

Using this information, we can calculate the sum of the first 28 terms as follows:

1 + 3 + 6 + 10 + 15 + 21 + 28 = 84

Therefore, the sum of the first 28 terms in the sequence is 84, which corresponds to option (b).
The correct answer is (b) 84.

Q. (Subject)

Q47. A person buys three articles P, Q and R for ₹3,330. If P costs 25% more than R and Rcosts 20% more than Q, then what is the cost of P?

₹1,000
₹1,200
₹1,250
₹1,350

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's assume the cost of article Q is x.

According to the given information:

R costs 20% more than Q, so the cost of R = x + 0.2x = 1.2x
P costs 25% more than R, so the cost of P = 1.25 * 1.2x = 1.5x

Now, given, the total cost of all three articles is ₹3,330:

x + 1.2x + 1.5x = 3330
3.7x = 3330
x = 3330 / 3.7
x = 900
Therefore, the cost of P = 1.5 * 900 = ₹1,350
So, the correct answer is: (d) ₹1,350

Q. (Subject)

Q48. If the sum of the two-digit numbers AB and CD is the three-digit number 1CE, where the letters A, B, C, D, E denote distinct digits, then what is the value of A?

9
8
7
Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: A

Explanation:

adding A to C is C itself. It means either A in zero, or there is some Carry forward of the B+D.
The maximum carry forward of B+D Could be 1. (even if bh B&D are 9 and 9, i. e. B+D = 18)
A can not be zero, else AB will not be a two digit number.
Hence, there is only one possibility.
A +C +1 = C,
means A = 9.

Q. (Subject)

Q49. Three numbers x, y, z are selected from the set of the first seven natural numbers such that x > 2y > 3z. How many such distinct triplets (x, y, z) are possible?

One triplet
Two triplets
Three triplets
Four triplets

Answer: D

Explanation:

To find the possible distinct triplets (x, y, z) where x > 2y > 3z, we need to consider the first seven natural numbers (1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7) and find combinations that satisfy the given condition.

Let's analyze the possible combinations:

If x = 7, y = 2, z = 1: x > 2y > 3z is true: 7 > 4 > 3
If x = 7, y = 3, z = 1: x > 2y > 3z is true: 7 > 6 > 3
If x = 6, y = 2, z = 1: x > 2y > 3z is true: 6 > 4 > 3
If x = 5, y = 2, z = 1: x > 2y > 3z is true: 5 > 4 > 3

These are the four distinct triplets that satisfy the given condition.

Therefore, the correct answer is (d) Four triplets.

Q. (Subject)

Q50. The total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples is equal to twice the total cost of 1 orange, 2 mangoes and 5 apples.
Consider the following statements:

The total cost of 3 oranges, 5 mangoes and 9 apples is equal to the total cost of 4 oranges, 6 mangoes and 8 apples.
The total cost of one orange and one mango is equal to the cost of one apple.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given that the total cost of 4 O, 6 M, and 8 A is equal to twice the total cost of 1 O, 2 M, and 5 A.

4 O + 6 M + 8 A = 2(1 O + 2 M + 5 A)
4 O + 6 M + 8 A = 2 O + 4 M + 10 A
2 O + 2 M = 2 A
O + M = A

Now, let’s consider statement 1:

The total cost of 3 O, 5 M, and 9 A is equal to the total cost of 4 O, 6 M, and 8 A.
3 O + 5 M + 9 A = 4 O + 6 M + 8 A
O + M = A
This statement is correct as it follows the simplified equation from the given data.

Now, let's consider statement 2:

The total cost of one O and one M is equal to the cost of one A.
O + M = A
This statement is also correct as it follows the simplified equation from the given data.

Therefore, both statements 1 and 2 are correct. The correct answer is option (c).

Q. Turning Carbon Dioxide into Stone (Comprehension)

Passage-1
When an international team of scientists pumped a carbon dioxide and water mix into underground basalt rocks, basic chemistry took over. The acidic mixture dissolved rocks' calcium and magnesium and formed limestone. Basically carbon dioxide is converted into stone, exclaimed the scientists.

Q51. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical suggestion implied by the passage?

It is a cheap and practical method to produce limestone at commercial level for building purposes.
This can be used as one of the methods of carbon sequestration.
Basalt rock can be made a good source of calcium and magnesium minerals by this method.
Good rock-dissolving acid can be produced by mixing carbon dioxide and water.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Option a is incorrect:The passage does not mention anything about producing limestone at a commercial level for building purposes. The focus is on the conversion of carbon dioxide into stone through a chemical process.
Option b is correct:The passage mentions that the process of pumping carbon dioxide and water into underground basalt rocks can be used as a method of carbon sequestration. This implies that it can help in reducing carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere.
Option c is incorrect:The passage does not suggest that basalt rock can be used as a source of calcium and magnesium minerals. It only mentions that the acidic mixture dissolved rocks' calcium and magnesium to form limestone.
Option d is incorrect:The passage does not discuss the production of a rock-dissolving acid by mixing carbon dioxide and water. It focuses on the conversion of carbon dioxide into stone through the dissolution of rocks' calcium and magnesium.

Q. Icebergs Storing Carbon (Comprehension)

Passage-2
Geographers analyzed 175 satellite images of ocean colour, which is an indicator of phytoplankton productivity at the ocean's surface, and found that giant icebergs are responsible for storing up to 20 percent of carbon in the Southern Ocean. The researchers discovered that melting water from giant icebergs which contains iron and other nutrients, supports hitherto unexpectedly high levels of phytoplankton growth.

Q52. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

Giant icebergs have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains of the Southern Ocean.
Melting of giant icebergs can produce climate change effects and impact world fisheries.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

Explanation:

Statement 1 is correct:The passage mentions that giant icebergs have a significant impact on phytoplankton productivity in the Southern Ocean, which is a key component of the ocean's food chain.
The researchers found that melting water from giant icebergs supports high levels of phytoplankton growth, indicating that giant icebergs do have a bearing on primary productivity and food chains in the Southern Ocean.
Statement 2 is incorrect:The passage does not mention any direct link between the melting of giant icebergs and climate change effects.
While the increased phytoplankton growth due to melting water from giant icebergs may have implications for the ecosystem, there is no mention of direct impacts on world fisheries or climate change effects.

Q. Evolution of Caterpillars (Comprehension)

Passage-3
Evolution has endowed caterpillars that feed on corn with a unique ability, they can induce the plant to turn off its defence against insect predators. This helps caterpillars to eat more and grow faster. The agent that causes this effect is the caterpillar's faeces or frass. The find could throw new light on compounds associated with plant response to pathogens like fungi or bacteria.

Q53. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message conveyed by the passage?

Farmers can use caterpillars to feed on weeds in their crop fields/ plantations.
This finding can help in the development of clinically useful antimicrobial compounds.
This finding can help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides.
Caterpillars can be genetically modified to be predators of the other plant pests.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about using caterpillars to feed on weeds in crop fields/plantations.
Option B is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about the development of clinically useful antimicrobial compounds.
Option C is correct: The passage states that this finding could help in the development of organic, ecologically sustainable pesticides.
Option D is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about genetically modifying caterpillars to be predators of other plant pests.

Q. (Subject)

Q54. 325 +227 is divisible by

Answer: C

Explanation:

Let us analyse the expression:

(32)⁵ + (2)²⁷ = (2)^{5 x 5} + (2)²⁷
= (2)²⁵ (1 + 22)
= 2²⁵x 5
Means, the expression is divisible by 2 and 5 both
Hence, it is divisible by 10
Correct answer is C.

Q. (Subject)

Q55. Let p and q be positive integers satisfying p < q and p + q = k. What is the smallest value of k that does not determine p and q uniquely?

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given:

p and q are positive integers, means > 0 and can be 1, 2, 3, 4, …..
p < q and p + q = k
we need to find out the smallest value of k which does not determine p and q uniquely.

Let us check using the options:

Option (a): k = 3

p + q = 3 and p < q
it means, p = 1, q = 2 (p & q can be uniquely determined)
Hence, option (a) is wrong

Option (b): k = 4

p + q = 4 and p < q
it means, p = 1 and q = 3 (p & q can be uniquely determined)
Hence, option (b) is wrong

Option (c): k = 5

p + q = 5 and p < q
(p, q) + (1, 4) or (2, 3)
Hence, p & q cannot be uniquely determined

Hence, option (c) is correct.

Q. (Subject)

Q56. A person walks 100 m straight from his house, turns left and walks 100 m, again turns left and walks 300 m, then turns right and walks 100 m to reach his office. In which direction does he walk initially from his house if his office is exactly in the North-East direction?

North-West
West
South
South-West

Answer: C

Explanation:

Step 1: Locating the office

Step 2: Adjusting the direction

Hence, the person initially walked in south direction.
Hence, option C is correct.

Q. (Subject)

Q57. A person walks 100 m Westward, then turns left and walks 100 m. He then takes 225° turn clockwise. In which direction is he walking now?

South-West
South-East
North-West
North-East

Answer: D

Explanation:

Q. (Subject)

Q58. A Statement is given followed by two Conclusions numbered I and and II. II. Consider the Statement and the Conclusions.

Statement: India is the world's largest producer of milk.
Conclusion-I: India is the world's largest exporter of milk.
Conclusion-II: India does not import milk.

Which one of the following is correct?

Only Conclusion-I follows
Only Conclusion-II follows
Both Conclusion-I and Conclusion-II follow
Neither Conclusion-I nor
Conclusion-II follows

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement: India is the world's largest producer of milk.
Let's analyze each conclusion based on the given statement.

Conclusion-I: India is the world's largest exporter of milk.

This conclusion cannot be inferred from the statement alone.
The statement mentions that India is the world's largest producer of milk, but it does not provide any information about whether India exports more milk than any other country.
Therefore, Conclusion-I does not necessarily follow.

Conclusion-II: India does not import milk.

The statement only mentions that India is the world's largest producer of milk.
It does not specify anything about whether India imports milk or not.
Therefore, Conclusion-II also does not necessarily follow.

So, the correct answer is: (d)

Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II follows

Q. (Subject)

Q59. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: What are the values of m and n, where m and n are natural numbers?
Statement-I: m + n > mn and m > n.
Statement-II: The product of m and n is 24.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question: What are the values of m and n, where m and n are natural numbers?
Statement-I: m+n>mn and m>n.
Statement-II: m * n = 24.
Now, let's analyze each statement:

Statement-I:

This statement implies that both m and n are greater than 1 because m>n.
However, it's challenging to determine exact values for m and n based on this statement alone because there can be multiple combinations of m and n that satisfy the inequality m+n>mn and m>n.
For instance, m=4 and n=2 as well as m=5 and n=2 both satisfy the inequality, among other possible combinations.
Hence, the question can not be answered by using this statement alone.

Statement-II:

m * n = 24.
Since both m and n are natural numbers, the pairs that satisfy this condition are (m,n)=(1,24),(2,12),(3,8),(4,6),(6,4),(8,3),(12,2),(24,1)
There are multiple valid pairs for m and n based on this statement alone.
Hence, the question can not be answered by using this statement alone.

Combining both statements:

m+n>mn and m>n.
m * n = 24.
The only pair that satisfies these conditions is (m,n)=(24,1).

So, the correct answer is: (c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.

Q. (Subject)

Q60. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: What is the time required to download the software?
Statement-I: The size of the software is 12 megabytes.
Statement-II: The transfer rate is 2-4 kilobytes per second.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Question: What is the time required to download the software?

To calculate the time required to download the software, we need to divide the size of the software by the transfer rate.

Statement-I alone: The size of the software is 12 megabytes.

We know the size of the software.
However, without knowing the transfer rate, we cannot calculate the time required to download it.
So, Statement-I alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Statement-II alone: The transfer rate is 2-4 kilobytes per second.

We know the transfer rate.
However, we don't have information about the size of the software. Without the size, we cannot calculate the time required to download the software. So, Statement-II alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Combining both statements:

We have information about both the size of the software and the transfer rate.
Using the formula Time = Size / Transfer Rate, we can calculate the time required to download the software.

Therefore, the correct answer is (c)
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.

Q. Robust Democracy (Comprehension)

Passage-1
In a robust democracy, reality, howsoever inconvenient it may be, finds its expression both in the speech of political leaders and the other social forms of assertion. The existence of the real has to be transparent, both through its circulation in and by the media as well as its argumentative articulation in deliberative democracy. A normatively responsible media through its communication effect has the responsibility to circulate the content of reality without distortion.

Q61. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?

Responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy.
Fake news seems inherent in the life of an ideal democracy.
There should not be any kind of restrictions on the freedom of expression in an ideal democracy.
Irresponsible media and political leaders be cannot effectively controlled in an ideal democracy.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option (a) is correct: Responsible media should not distort the real in an ideal democracy. This is supported by the passage which emphasizes the importance of the media circulating the content of reality without distortion.
Option (b) is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that fake news is inherent in the life of an ideal democracy. In fact, it emphasizes the importance of the media presenting reality without distortion.
Option (c) is incorrect: The passage does not specifically address restrictions on freedom of expression in an ideal democracy. It focuses more on the responsibility of the media to present reality accurately.
Option (d) is incorrect: The passage does not discuss the control of irresponsible media and political leaders in an ideal democracy. It focuses more on the role of the media in presenting reality accurately.

Q. Interconnected Home Devices (Comprehension)

Passage-2
Now-a-days there is a growing trend to use interconnected home devices. As consumers increasingly network their homes, the connected home device manufacturers and service providers will seek to overcome "thin profit margins by gathering more personal data with or without our agreement- of our turning the home into a corporate storefront". Corporate marketers will have powerful incentives to observe consumer behaviour to understand the buying needs and preferences of the device owners.

Q62. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical, rational and practical message implied by the passage?

Knowledge of consumer behaviour leads to more capital expenditure in manufacturing sector.
Knowledge of consumer behaviour stimulates the growth of commerce and trade and thus helps in the overall economic development of the country.
Interconnected devices give a lot of comfort to home users and improve the overall quality of life.
Interconnected devices can be at security risk and home users may have privacy risk.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: The passage does not mention anything about capital expenditure in the manufacturing sector.
Option B is incorrect: While knowledge of consumer behavior may stimulate growth in commerce and trade, the passage focuses more on the potential privacy risks associated with interconnected home devices.
Option C is incorrect: While interconnected devices may provide comfort and improve quality of life, the passage primarily discusses the potential data gathering and privacy concerns.
Option D is correct: The passage specifically mentions the potential security and privacy risks associated with interconnected home devices, indicating that home users may face privacy risks.

Q. Growth and Environmental Sustainability (Comprehension)

Passage-3
Green growth involves rethinking growth strategies with regard to the impacts on environmental sustainability and the environmental resources available to poor and vulnerable groups. In rethinking growth, we need to focus on the current reality of a resource-constrained world. Resource intensive and, in particular energy intensive processes will need to make way for more efficient and resource frugal development strategies if we are to avoid an economic dead end or a world in which only a small elite is able to enjoy affluence in the midst of a sea of poverty.

Q63. Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the above passage?

Environmental sustainability is inimical to our objective of achieving a high rate of GDP growth.
Poverty eradication is not possible without a rapid economic growth and the consequent environmental degradation.
Maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving a steady, sufficient and inclusive growth.
With large populations, rampant poverty and limited resources of today's world, environmental degradation cannot be prevented and inequalities are inevitable.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Option A is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that environmental sustainability is inimical to achieving a high rate of GDP growth. Instead, it emphasizes the need to rethink growth strategies in order to achieve both economic growth and environmental sustainability.
Option B is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that poverty eradication is not possible without rapid economic growth and environmental degradation. It actually highlights the importance of focusing on environmental sustainability in order to achieve inclusive growth.
Option C is correct: The passage emphasizes that maintaining high environmental standards is now a prerequisite for achieving steady, sufficient, and inclusive growth. It suggests that rethinking growth strategies to focus on environmental sustainability is essential for long-term economic development.
Option D is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that environmental degradation cannot be prevented and inequalities are inevitable due to large populations, poverty, and limited resources. Instead, it emphasizes the importance of transitioning towards more efficient and resource-frugal development strategies to avoid economic dead ends and widespread poverty.

Q. (Subject)

Q64. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: What are the unique values of x and y, where x, y are distinct natural numbers?
Statement-1: x / y is odd.
Statement-II: xy = 12

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given:

x, y are distinct natural numbers.

Checking statement 1 and 2 individually:

We cannot find the values of x or y only be one statement alone. Hence, options a and b are eliminated.
We need to check if the question can be answered or cannot be answered. i.e. between options c and d.

Statement-II: xy = 12

We'll first list down all possible pairs of natural numbers whose product is 12: 1×12, 2×6, 3×4

Now let's check Statement-I: x / y is odd.

This means that x and y must be such that x divided by y results in an odd number.

For each pair from our list:

1×12: 12/1=12 (not odd)
2×6: 6/2=3 (odd)
3×4: 4/3=1.33 (not a natural number)

From our list of pairs, only one pair satisfies this condition: (2, 6).

Combining both statements, we find that the unique values of x and y that satisfy both conditions are x = 2 and y = 6. These values are distinct natural numbers and fulfill both conditions given in the question.
Therefore, the correct answer is (c) The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.

Q. (Subject)

Q65. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

A certain amount was distributed among X, Y and Z.

Question: Who received the least amount?
Statement-I: X received 4/5 of what Y and Z together received.
Statement-II: Y received 2/7 of what X and Z together received.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given:

A certain amount was distributed among X, Y and Z.

Checking statement 1 and 2 individually:

Statement I: X received 4/5 of what Y and Z together received. Means x = 4/5 (y+z)
Statement II: Y received 2/7 of what X and Z together received. Means y = 2/7 (x+z)
Options a and b are eliminated.

Now, calculations

x = 4/5 (y+z) and y = 2/7 (x+z)
Means, x = 4/5 (2/7 (x+z) + z)
Or 7*5 x = 4 * (2x + 2z + 7z)
Or 35x = 8x + 36z
Or 27x = 36z

Or x = 4z/3. Means, x > z.

Now, substituting value of x in any of the equations:

y = 2/7 * (x+z)
Or y = 2/7 * (4z/3+z)
Or y = 2/7 * (7z / 3)
Or y = 2z/3. Means y < z.

Now combining x > z and y < z.

x > z > y.
Hence, y received the least amount.

Hence, Option c is correct:

The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone

Q.66 (Subject)

Q66. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: If the average marks in a class are 60, then what is the number of students in the class?
Statement-l: The highest marks in the class are 70 and the lowest marks are 50.
Statement-II: Exclusion of highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: D

Explanation:

Let's analyze each statement:

Statement-I: This statement gives us information about the range of marks in the class (50 to 70) but does not directly provide the number of students or the distribution of marks within the class.
Statement-II: This statement tells us that removing the highest and lowest marks from the class does not change the average. This implies that the number of students is such that removing these extreme values doesn't affect the average. But this statement also does not directly provide the number of students.
We cannot find the answer even by combining both the statements. We can not find the number of students in the class.
Hence, the answer is d.

Q.67 (Subject)

Q67. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number.

Question: What are those three numbers?
Statement-I: Their sum is less than 23.
Statement-II: One of the numbers is 5.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: A

Explanation:

There are three distinct prime numbers whose sum is a prime number.

Statement-I: Their sum is less than 23.

If the sum of the three prime numbers is less than 23, we can start by listing prime numbers less than 23. They are: 2, 3, 5, 7, 11, 13, 17, 19.
The numbers must be distinct and their sum should be prime.
There are multiple combinations that fit these conditions. One such combination is 3 + 5 + 11 = 19.
Hence, it can be answered using the Statement 1 alone.

Statement-II:

One of the prime numbers is 5.
This information alone is not sufficient to determine the other two prime numbers that, when added to 5, result in a prime number.

Hence, correct answer is (a)

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone

Q. (Subject)

Q68. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Question: Is (x + y) an integer?
Statement-I: (2x + y) is an integer.
Statement-II: (x + 2y) is an integer.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement I: (2x + y) is an integer.

2x + y is an integer. However, this does not necessarily mean that x and y are integers.
For example, x = 1.5 and y = 0.5 would satisfy this condition but (x + y) would not be an integer.

Statement II: (x + 2y) is an integer.

x + 2y is an integer. But this does not guarantee that x and y are integers.
For example, x = 0.5 and y = 1.5 would satisfy this condition but (x + y) would not be an integer.

Both the statements:

However, if we combine both statements, we still can not tell that (x + y) would also be an integer.
Therefore, the question can be answered by using both statements together.

The correct answer is (d)

The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Q. (Subject)

Q69. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

A person buys three articles p, q and r for ₹50. The price of the article q is ₹16 which is the least.

Question : What is the price of the article p?
Statement-I: The cost of p is not more than that of r.
Statement-II: The cost of r is not more than that of p.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: C

Explanation:

Given:

Price of article q is ₹16, which is the least.
The total price of all three articles is ₹50.
Means cost of p + r = 34.

Statement-I: The cost of p is not more than that of r.

This means that the price of p could be equal to or less than the price of r.
By only this statement, we can not answer the question.

Statement-II: The cost of r is not more than that of p.

This means that the price of r could be equal to or less than the price of p.
By only this statement, we can not answer the question.

Combining both the statements

We can conclude that the price of p is equal to the price of r.
Means p = r = 34 / 2 = 17.
Therefore, the price of both p and r is ₹17 each.

The correct answer is (c)

The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.

Q. (Subject)

Q70. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

P, Q, R and S appeared in a test.

Question: Has P scored more marks than Q?
Statement-I: The sum of the marks scored by P and Q is equal to the sum of the marks scored by R and S.
Statement-II: The sum of the marks scored by P and S is more than the sum of the marks scored by Q and R.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone.
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone.
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The question asks whether P has scored more marks than Q.

Statement-I: The sum of the marks scored by P and Q is equal to the sum of the marks scored by R and S.

P + Q = R + S
This does not provide any information about whether P has scored more than Q.

Statement-II: The sum of the marks scored by P and S is more than the sum of the marks scored by Q and R.

P + S > Q + R
Again, this does not give a clear indication of whether P has scored more than Q.

Both statements combined together:

There are multiple possibilities for the marks scored by each individual, making it impossible to definitively determine whether P has scored more than Q.

The correct answer is (d)

The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together.

Q. Poetry: Plurality and Tyranny (Comprehension)

Passage-1
Unlike religion and science, poetry does not posit or expect any belief in absolute truths. Those forces or individuals who claim to have absolute truths in their grasp tend to turn dictatorial and tyrannical. Truth usually does not admit any contradictions or imperfections. It is unitarian. It is, therefore, not of much use or poetry. Poetry abides by the plurality of life and existence. Perhaps poetry follows reality which is plural, anachronistic, full of contradictions. Against the tyranny of truth, poetry remains a partisan of democratic reality. Against the arrogance of power, wealth and hierarchy, poetry proposes both humility and defiance.

Q71. Which one of the following statements best reflects the most logical and rational message conveyed by the above passage?

It is the poetry, not science or religion, which recognizes and accepts imperfections in humans.
Truth is revealed through science or religion and poetry is anathema to truth.
Poetry is romantic, imaginary and is about feeling whereas science and religion are about truth.
In a world of violence, tyranny and bigotry, poetry is a form of dynamic resistance.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Option A is correct: The passage clearly states that poetry does not expect belief in absolute truths and recognizes imperfections in life and existence.
It contrasts poetry with the unitarian nature of truth, suggesting that poetry embraces the plurality of reality.
Option B is incorrect: The passage does not suggest that truth is only revealed through science or religion, but rather critiques the idea of absolute truths and the tyranny that can result from claiming to possess them.
Option C is incorrect: The passage does not imply that poetry is solely about feelings or imagination, but rather emphasizes its role in recognizing the plurality and contradictions of reality.
It also does not suggest that science and religion are solely about truth, as it critiques the idea of absolute truths in general
Option D is correct: The passage suggests that poetry serves as a form of resistance against violence, tyranny, and hierarchy.
It mentions poetry's role in proposing both humility and defiance in the face of arrogance and power.

Q. The true purpose of flowers (Comprehension)

Passage-2
The flower was not invented to please us. It flaunted its petals and spread its perfume to attract an insect. The insect carries the pollen from flower to flower so that pollen is not carried away by wind and thus not wasted. What we call a flower's beauty is merely a by-product and a human invention. The perfume is not there to please us, it pleases us because it is there and we have been conditioned to it.

Q72. Based on the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

The author of the passage believes that flowers are creations of Nature's luxury.
The author of the passage does not believe in the usefulness of flowers except as things of beauty.

Which of the assumptions given above is/are valid?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Statement 1 is incorrect: The author does not believe that flowers are creations of Nature's luxury, but rather that they serve a specific purpose in attracting insects for pollination.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The author acknowledges the usefulness of flowers in attracting insects for pollination, not just as things of beauty.

Q. (Subject)

Q73. A Question is given followed by two Statements I and II. Consider the Question and the Statements.

Age of each of P and Q is less than 100 years but more than 10 years. If you interchange the digits of the age of P, the number represents the age of Q.

Question: What is the difference of their ages?
Statement-I: The age of P is greater than the age of Q.
Statement-II: The sum of their ages is 11/6 times their difference.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Question and the Statements?

The Question can be answered by using one of the Statements alone, but cannot be answered using the other Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using either Statement alone
The Question can be answered by using both the Statements together, but cannot be answered using either Statement alone
The Question cannot be answered even by using both the Statements together

Answer: A

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. (Subject)

Q74. A Main Statement is followed by four Statements labelled P, Q, R and S. Choose the ordered pair of the Statements where the first Statement implies the second, and the two Statements are logically consistent with the Main Statement.

Main Statement: Pradeep becomes either a Director or a Producer.
Statement P: Pradeep is a Director.
Statement Q: Pradeep is a Producer.
Statement R: Pradeep is not a Director.
Statement S: Pradeep is not a Producer.

Select the correct answer.

SP only
RQ only
Both SP and RQ
Neither SP nor RQ

Answer: C

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. (Subject)

Q75, If a + b means a - b; a - b means a x b; a x b means a ÷ b; a ÷ b means a + b, then what is the value of 10 + 30 – 100 × 50 + 25? (Operations are to be replaced simultaneously)

Answer: D

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. (Subject)

Q76. If P means 'greater than (>)'; Q means less than (<)'; R means 'not greater than (>/)'; S means 'not less than (/<)' and T means 'equal to (=)', then consider the following statements:

If 2x (S)3y and 3x(T)4z, then 9y(P) 8z.
If x (Q)2y and y(R)z, then x(R)z.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1 only
2 only
Both 1 and 2
Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Explanation:

Putting the values into statement 1

If 2x ≮ 3y & 3x = 4z, then 9y > 8z
Now checking:
2x ≮ 3y can be written as 2x ≥ 3y
Putting x = 4z/3 into this
2 x 4z/3 ≥ 3y
Or 8z ≥ 9y
Or 9y ≤ 8z (this is deduction)
Given 9y > 8z
Hence, statement 1 is false.

Putting the values into statement 2

If x < 2y & y ≯ z, then x ≤ z
Now checking:
y ≯ z an be written as y ≤ z
y ≤ z means y + y ≤ z + y or 2y ≤ z + y
putting it in x < 2y
x < 2y ≤ z + y
or x ≤ z + y (this is deduction)
given x ≤ z
By comparing the above two equations, we cannot certainly conclude that x ≤ z
Hence, statement 2 is also wrong.

Q. (Subject)

Q77. If in a certain code, 'ABCD' is written as 24 and 'EFGH' is written as 1680, then how is 'IJKL' written in that code?

11880
11240
7920
5940

Answer: A

Explanation:

To be added.

Q. (Subject)

Q78. If in a certain code, 'POT' is written as ATOP and 'TRAP' is written as APART, then how is 'ARENA' written in that code?

AARENA
AANREA
AANEAR
AANERA

Answer:

Explanation:

Analysing the patterns

POT is written as ATOP: Here, the word POT is reversed to become TOP, and then the letter A is added at the beginning.
TRAP is written as APART: Similarly, the word TRAP is reversed to become PART, and then the letter A is added at the beginning.

Now, let's apply this pattern to the word ARENA:

Reverse ARENA to get ANERA.
Add A at the beginning to get AANERA.

The correct answer is d.

Q. (Subject)

Q79. What will come in place of * in the sequence 3, 14, 39, 84, *, 258?

Answer: B

Explanation:

Analysing the progression

3 = 3 × 1
14 = 7 × 2 = (3+4) × 2
39 = 13 ×3 = (7+6) × 3
84 = 21 × 4 = (13 + 8) ×4
* = p × 5 = (21 + 10) × 5

Means,

Value of * = (21 + 10) × 5 = 155

Hence, option b is the correct answer.

Q. (Subject)

Q80. In some code, letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15. It is not known which letter represents which number. If Q – S = 2S and T = R + S + 3, then what is the value of P + R - T?

1
2
3
Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: B

Explanation:

Given:

Letters P, Q, R, S, T represent numbers 4, 5, 10, 12, 15, respectively.
Q−S=2S or Q = 3S … (Equation 1)
T=R+S+3 … (Equation 2)

Analysing Equation 1: Q = 3S

To satisfy this, from the given numbers, the values of S can be either 4 or 5.
Hence, Q can be either 12 or 15.

Analysing Equation 2: T=R+S+3

Case 1: if S = 4 and Q = 12: T, R, S will be chosen from 5, 10, 15. No combination will fit in T=R+S+3. Hence, this case is not possible.
Case 2: if S = 5 and Q = 15: T, R, S will be chosen from 4, 10, 12. If we take R = 4, and T = 12, then 12 = 4 + 5 + 3, which is true.

Finding the value of P + R – T

We have, S = 5, Q = 15, R = 4, and T = 12, P = 10
Hence, P + R – T = 10 + 4 – 12 = 2.

Hence, option b is the correct answer.